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12 months ago

F5 certification 201 Training online exam targeted training

The ITCertMaster F5 201 Training online is 100% verified and tested. ITCertMaster F5 201 Training online practice questions and answers is the practice test software. In ITCertMaster, you will find the best exam preparation material. The material including practice questions and answers. The information we have could give you the opportunity to practice issues, and ultimately achieve your goal that through F5 201 Training online certification.

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Exam Name: BIG-IP Administrator Exam
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NO.1 A site has assigned the ICMP monitor to all nodes and a custom monitor, based on the HTTP
template, to a pool of web servers. The HTTPElbased monitor
is working in all cases. The ICMP monitor is failing for 2 of the pool member 5 nodes. All other
settings are default. What is the status of the monitor is working in all cases. The ICMP monitor is
failing for 2 of the pool member. 5 nodes. All other settings are default. What is the status of the
pool members.
A. All pool members are up since the HTTPElbased monitor is successful.
B. All pool members are down since the ICMPElbased monitor is failing in some cases.
C. The pool members whose nodes are failing the ICMPElbased monitor will be marked unavailable.
D. The pool members whose nodes are failing the ICMPElbased monitor will be marked disabled.
Answer: C

201 Training online questions   

NO.2 A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a
faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to
all members, which two loadElbalancing methods are most appropriate. (Choose two.)
A. Ratio
B. Priority
C. Round Robin
D. Observed
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications.
It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the
servers.
If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which loadbalancing mode is most
effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all servers.
A. Ratio
B. Round Robin
C. Priority
D. Observed
Answer: D

201 Training online test questions   

NO.4 Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license.
A. the system's base license
B. the system's purchase order number
C. the system's dossier
D. the system's host name
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two can be a part of a pool's definition. (Choose two.)
A. persistence type
B. monitor(s)
C. rule(s)
D. profile(s)
E. loadElbalancing mode
Answer: B,E
 

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12 months ago

Avaya 3204 Bootcamp exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 3204 Bootcamp
Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Conferencing Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 After you have defined the Media Servers that make up the Media Server Cluster, what are the
next two configuration parameters you need to define for the Media Server Cluster? (Choose two.)
A. The assignment of the Media Server to the Document Conversion Server
B. The serving locations of the Media Server Cluster
C. The physical location of the Media Server Cluster
D. The addition of the IP address of the Media Server to the Session Manager
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You want to find the thresholds configured in the system for minor, major, and critical alarms
for Jitter (ms) on the Element Manager.
Under which folder are the Alert Thresholds found?
A. Application Servers
B. Log Filters
C. Key Performance Indicators
D. Media Servers and Clusters
Answer: B

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NO.3 Of the three Media Server roles, which Role is used to prompt for conference codes?
A. Cascading
B. ANNC
C. IVR
D. Hosting
Answer: C

3204 Bootcamp Practice Test   
Reference:http://portaone.com/resources/docs/PortaSIP/m-
r45/PortaSIP_Media_Server_MR45.pdf(See the Page #8, 1STParagraph).

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
To allow the System Manager to manage bandwidth on the Avaya Aura@ Conferencing SIP Entity,
which field must be selected?
A. Shared Bandwidth Manager
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. SIP Link Monitoring
D. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
Answer: B

3204 Bootcamp practice test   
 

NO.5 To setup a conference call on Avaya Aura@ Conferencing for Avaya Aura@, which three tasks
are required? (Choose three.)
A. Configure TLS between Avaya Session Manager and the Media Server.
B. Configure the user's soft client on their PC.
C. Configure a SIP entity, SIP entity link, routing policy, and dial pattern on System Manager.
D. Configure the domain, location, Media Server, and service URI on Avaya Aura@ Conferencing 8.0.
E. Configure users on System Manager to have a conferencing profile.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 After creating a custom theme for Avaya Aura@ Conferencing, what must be used to upload
the custom theme?
A. SFTP
B. Element Manager Console
C. Provisioning Manager Console
D. FTP
Answer: B

3204 Bootcamp demo   
Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101004903(p.97)

 

12 months ago

EMC certification E20-690 Exam Dumps exam best training materials

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Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers
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NO.1 When using USM's Capture Diagnostic Data feature, where are the files automatically stored
upon completion of this task?
A. They are in the C:\EMC\repository folder located on the system running USM.
B. The user is prompted to either view them or upload them to EMC if ConnectHome is configured.
C. They are automatically uploaded to EMC support if the system is registered.
D. They are automatically stored in the repository located on the VNX vault drives.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which describes the VNX Control Volumes?
A. Partitions containing the VNX OE for Block operating system
B. Private system LUNs where the EMC NAS code is installed
C. Volumes that AVM manages and that store NAS file systems
D. Control LUNs that the Unisphere Host Agent uses to manage the array
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are onsite to replace a faulted Data Mover. After the faulted Data Mover has been
physically replaced, which command will return the primary Data Mover back to an active state?
A. server_standby < movername> - activate mover
B. server_setup < movername> -start mover
C. server_standby < movername> -restore mover
D. server_setup < movername> -load mover
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which protocols does the Storage System Initialization Wizard use to discover an uninitialized
VNX?
A. UDP broadcasts and UDP multicasts
B. UDP broadcasts and TCP multicasts
C. TCP broadcasts and TCP multicasts
D. TCP broadcasts and UDP multicasts
Answer: A

E20-690 Exam Dumps Test Questions   

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A service engineer needs to collect logs from SP B due to an unscheduled reboot. Which letter
indicates the location where the service engineer would connect to SP B?
A. B
B. C
C. F
D. E
Answer: C

E20-690 Exam Dumps answers real questions   
 

12 months ago

Featured Cloudera certification CCA-500 Exam Cram exam test questions and answers

NO.1 You are running a Hadoop cluster with MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You consistently
see that MapReduce map tasks on your cluster are running slowly because of excessive garbage
collection of JVM, how do you increase JVM heap size property to 3GB to optimize performance?
A. yarn.application.child.java.opts=-Xmx3072m
B. mapreduce.map.java.opts=-Xms3072m
C. mapreduce.map.java.opts=-Xmx3072m
D. yarn.application.child.java.opts=-Xsx3072m
Answer: B

CCA-500 Exam Cram braindump   
Reference: http://hortonworks.com/blog/how-to-plan-and-configure-yarn-in-hdp-2-0/

NO.2 Your company stores user profile records in an OLTP databases. You want to join these records
with web server logs you have already ingested into the Hadoop file system. What is the best way to
obtain and ingest these user records?
A. Ingest with sqoop import
B. Ingest with Pig's LOAD command
C. Ingest with Hadoop streaming
D. Ingest using Hive's IQAD DATA command
E. Ingest using the HDFS put command
Answer: A



NO.3 Which scheduler would you deploy to ensure that your cluster allows short jobs to finish within
a reasonable time without starting long-running jobs?
A. Complexity Fair Scheduler (CFS)
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler
Answer: C


Reference: http://hadoop.apache.org/docs/r1.2.1/fair_scheduler.html

NO.4 During the execution of a MapReduce v2 (MRv2) job on YARN, where does the Mapper place
the intermediate data of each Map Task?
A. The Mapper transfers the intermediate data immediately to the reducers as it is generated by the
Map Task
B. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the underlying filesystem of the local disk in the
directories yarn.nodemanager.locak-DIFS
C. YARN holds the intermediate data in the NodeManager's memory (a container) until it is
transferred to the Reducer
D. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the node running the Job's ApplicationMaster so that
it is available to YARN ShuffleService before the data is presented to the Reducer
E. The Mapper stores the intermediate data in HDFS on the node where the Map tasks ran in the
HDFS /usercache/&(user)/apache/application_&(appid) directory for the user who ran the job
Answer: B


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12 months ago

642-885 Exam Questions questions and answers

Now many IT professionals agree that Cisco certification 642-885 Exam Questions certificate is a stepping stone to the peak of the IT industry. Cisco certification 642-885 Exam Questions is an exam concerned by lots of IT professionals.

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Exam Code: 642-885 Exam Questions
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Service Provider Advanced Network Routing
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NO.1 Refer to the Cisco IOS-XR show output exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The RPF neighbor 192.168.11.1 is the path towards the RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group
B. The RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group is reachable over the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
C. This router is the RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group
D. Incoming 224.1.1.1 multicast group traffic will be sent out through the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
E. Incoming 224.1.1.1 multicast group traffic will be sent out through the Gi0/0/0/2 interface
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which optionshowsthe equivalent multicast MAC address mapping of multicast address
239.210.101.190?
A. 01:00:5e:52:65:be
B. 01:00:5d:52:65:be
C. 01:00:5f:52:65:be
D. 01:00:5c:52:65:be
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two options areadvantages of an IPv6 dual-stack implementation in an enterprise
environment? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies the route redistribution policies complexity
B. requires IPv6-to-IPv4 translation on the uplinks to the service providers
C. provides built-in support for Kerberos authentication
D. does not have to worry about NAT traversal
E. supports multicast properly
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 What are three BGP configuration characteristics of a multihomed customer that is connected
to multiple service providers? (Choose three.)
A. The multihomed customer can use local preference to influence the return traffic from the service
providers
B. The multihomed customer announces its assigned IP address space to its service providers through
BGP
C. The multihomed customer has to decide whether to perform load sharing or use a primary/backup
implementation
D. The multihomed customer must use private AS number
E. The multihomed customer configures outbound route filters to prevent itself from
becoming a transit AS
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 Which three statements regarding the BGP operations are correct? (Choose three)
A. PE5 will set the local preferences 200 on all the prefixes sent to CE5
B. PE5 will set the local preference to 200 on all the prefixes learned from CE5
C. CE5 has received 5 prefixes from the PE5 EBGP peer
D. CE5 has the BGP scan interval set to 30 seconds
E. CE5 is announcing the 192.168.55.0/24 prefix via EBGP to the PE5 EBGP peer
F. The AS-Path to reach the 209.165.202.128/27 prefix from CE5 is: 64500 64497 64498
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
#sh ip bgp | be Network #sh ip bgp #show ip bgp neighbors

 

12 months ago

Latest APICS CPIM-BSP Exam Dumps of exam practice questions and answers free download

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about strategic planning is true?
A. It is focused on the master production schedule (MPS) and the material requirements plan.
B. It helps integrate the plans of marketing and production.
C. It involves primarily personnel development and acquisition of long-lead-time materials.
D. It is top-level planning that is not tied to other planning activities.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What document or record is used to inform others of the receipt of purchased goods?
A. Advance shipping notice
B. Invoice
C. Receiving report
D. Packing slip
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true regarding the concept of independent demand?
A. These items are usually raw materials.
B. The requirements for these items are usually forecasted.
C. The demand for these items must be calculated.
D. The demand for these items is related to demand for other items.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following information is the key output of rough-cut capacity planning?
A. Line balancing
B. Critical resource availability
C. Inventory objectives by product line
D. Capacity requirements plan
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following techniques is best for monitoring loads and capacities?
A. Exponential smoothing
B. Discrete lot sizing
C. Input/output control
D. Rough-cut capacity planning
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following terms represents a complete supply chain dedicated to the flow of
products and materials for the purpose of returns, repair, remanufacture, or recycling?
A. Responsible landfill
B. Remanufacturing resource planning
C. Reverse logistics
D. Global distribution
Answer: C

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12 months ago

1z0-808 Bootcamp, 1z1-808 Practice Test

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NO.1 Which two items can legally be contained within a java class declaration?
A. An import statement
B. A field declaration
C. A package declaration
D. A method declaration
Answer: B,D

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/methods.html

NO.2 Given the code fragment:
What is the result if the integer aVar is 9?
A. 10 Hello world!
B. 10 Hello universe!
C. 9 Hello world!
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: A

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NO.3 View the exhibit.
Given the code fragment:
Which change enables the code to print the following?
James age: 20
Williams age: 32
A. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws MissingInfoException,
AgeOutofRangeException {
B. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws.Exception {
C. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch(Exception e1) { //code goes here}
catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes
here}
D. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code
goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}
Answer: C

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12 months ago

Free download of the best Microsoft certification MB2-704 Exam Cost exam training materials

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NO.1 You lose an active opportunity and close it in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
What are two results of closing the opportunity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.
A. The opportunity is removed from the list of active opportunities.
B. Notes and attachments associated with the opportunity are saved for future reference.
C. All activities associated with the opportunity are automatically deactivated.
D. The opportunity cannot be reactivated.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You create an opportunity and need to add products.
What should you do before adding the opportunity products?
A. Set a price list.
B. Change the revenue setting to user provided.
C. Set estimated revenue.
D. Change the revenue setting to system calculated.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Ref: http://crmbook.powerobjects.com/basics/microsoft-dynamics-crm-salesprocess/advanced-
sales-processes/

NO.3 What is required to view a Dynamic Excel report?
A. Have Outlook Client installed.
B. Create the export from a System View.
C. Have system administrator rights.
D. Save the Advanced Find query in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer with an open opportunity selects one of your company's competitors.
You need to change the status of this opportunity so that the opportunity no longer shows in Open
Opportunities.
What should you do?
A. Mark all activities on the opportunity as complete.
B. Close the opportunity as lost.
C. Change the estimated revenue to zero.
D. Activate all draft quotes related to the opportunity.
Answer: B

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Ref: http://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/close-an-opportunityas-won-
or-lost.aspx
 

1 year ago

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NO.1 What are three factors a financial institution should examine with regard to a new customer
who is opening up a new account? Choose 3 answers
A. The country or location where the customer is from or does business
B. The type and size of the business the customer runs
C. The legal structure of the customer's business
D. The previous financial institutions where the customer has banked
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 A profitable commercial customer who operates an import-export business has multiple
accounts with the same institution at branches m different locations. The customer receives funds
from a jurisdiction perceived as highly corrupt according to Transparency International ratings. The
customer makes frequent transfers among the accounts and prefers to manage the accounts
separately. What should the institution do to mitigate the risk associated with these accounts?
A. File a suspicious transaction report
B. Diminish the importance of the subjective Transparency International rating
C. Conduct a trade-pnce manipulation analysis
D. Develop a system to monitor all the activity
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which activity is most likely to facilitate money laundering through on-line systems with
inadequate controls?
A. Conducting a large volume of transactions
B. Providing continuous worldwide access
C. Conducting anonymous transactions
D. Conducting large value transactions
Answer: B

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ITCertMaster Adobe 9A0-384 exam practice questions and answers

Exam Code: 9A0-384
Exam Name: Adobe Experience Manager 6 Developer Exam
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Adobe 9A0-384 Practice Exam 50 Q&As
Updated: 10-29,2015
9A0-384 Test Answers Detail : 9A0-384 Practice Exam

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NO.1 Which jar name can NOT be used to install an AEM publish instance?
A. aem-publish-p4503, jar
B. cq5-publish-4505, jar
C. cq5-publish-4503, jar
D. cq5-publish_4503, jar
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:
http://docs.adobe.com/docs/en/cq/5-6-1/getting_started/download_and_startworking.html

NO.2 What are three causes if Dispatcher stopped updating cache files in the cache directory on the
Webserver? (Choose three).
A. The request to the page in question contain query string parameters.
B. The request to the page in question has authorization headers and dispatcher.any does not
contain \allowAuthorized.
C. Dispatcher Flush agent is disabled on publish instance.
D. The request URI of the page in question should always start with /content.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Reference:
https://docs.adobe.com/docs/en/dispatcher/disp-config.html

NO.3 Which two URLs will show the server logs? (Choose two.)
A. http://{server}/system/console/status-slinglogs
B. http://{server}/system/console/slinglog
C. http://{server}/bin/crxde/logs
D. http://{server}/system/console/logs
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Reference:
http://docs.adobe.com/docs/en/cq/5-6-1/deploying/monitoring_and_maintaining.html

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